How I Impressed My Wife: Part 2c

Some husbands try to impress their wives by lifting extremely heavy objects or other extraordinary feats of physical prowess.

That will never happen in the Quintanilla household in a million years.

But she was impressed that I broke an impasse in her research and resolved a discrepancy between Mathematica 4 and Mathematica 8 by finding the following integral by hand in less than an hour:

$Q = \displaystyle \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

In this series, I’ll explore different ways of evaluating this integral.So far in this series, I’ve shown that

$Q = 2 \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

$= 2 \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{\sec^2 x dx}{1 + 2 a \tan x + (a^2 + b^2) \tan^2 x}$

I now employ the substitution $u = \tan x$ , so that $du = \sec^2 x dx$ . Also, the endpoints change from $-\pi/2 < x < \pi/2$ to $-\infty < u < \infty$ , so that

$Q = 2 \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{du}{1 + 2 a u + (a^2+b^2) u^2}$

I’ll continue with the evaluation of this integral in tomorrow’s post.

How I Impressed My Wife: Part 2b

Some husbands try to impress their wives by lifting extremely heavy objects or other extraordinary feats of physical prowess.

That will never happen in the Quintanilla household in a million years.

But she was impressed that I broke an impasse in her research and resolved a discrepancy between Mathematica 4 and Mathematica 8 by finding the following integral by hand in less than an hour:

$Q = \displaystyle \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

In this series, I’ll explore different ways of evaluating this integral.In yesterday’s post, I showed that

$Q = 2 \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

We now multiply the top and bottom of the integrand by $\sec^2 x$ . This is permissible because $\sec^2 x$ is defined on the interior of the interval $(-\pi/2, \pi/2)$ — which is why I needed to adjust the limits of integration in the first place. I obtain

$Q = 2 \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{\sec^2 x dx}{\cos^2 x \sec^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x \sec^2 x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x \sec^2 x}$

Next, I use some trigonometric identities to simplify the denominator:

$\cos^2 x \sec^2 x = \cos^2 x \displaystyle \frac{1}{\cos^2 x} = 1$
$\sin x \cos x \sec^2 x = \sin x \cos x \frac{1}{\cos^2 x} = \displaystyle \frac{\sin x}{\cos x} = \tan x$
$\sin^2 x \sec^2 x = \sin^2 x \displaystyle \frac{1}{\cos^2 x} = \displaystyle \left( \frac{\sin x}{\cos x} \right)^2 = \tan^2 x$

Therefore, the integral becomes

$Q = 2 \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{\sec^2 x dx}{1 + 2 a \tan x + (a^2 + b^2) \tan^2 x}$

I’ll continue with the evaluation of this integral in tomorrow’s post.

How I Impressed My Wife: Part 2a

Some husbands try to impress their wives by lifting extremely heavy objects or other extraordinary feats of physical prowess.

That will never happen in the Quintanilla household in a million years.

But she was impressed that I broke an impasse in her research and resolved a discrepancy between Mathematica 4 and Mathematica 8 by finding the following integral by hand in less than an hour:

$Q = \displaystyle \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

In this series, I’ll explore different ways of evaluating this integral.

I begin by adjusting the range of integration:

$Q = Q_1 + Q_2 + Q_3$ ,

where

$Q_1 = \displaystyle \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$ ,

$Q_2 = \displaystyle \int_{\pi/2}^{3\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$ ,

$Q_3 = \displaystyle \int_{3\pi/2}^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$ .

I’ll begin with $Q_3$ and apply the substitution $u = x - 2\pi$ , or $x = u + 2\pi$ . Then $du = dx$ , and the endpoints change from $3\pi/2 \le x 2\pi$ to $-\pi/2 \le u \le 0$ . Therefore,

$Q_3 = \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{0} \frac{du}{\cos^2 (u+2\pi) + 2 a \sin (u+2\pi) \cos (u+2\pi) + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 (u+2\pi)}$ .

Next, we use the periodic property for both sine and cosine — $\sin(x + 2\pi) = \sin x$ and $\cos(x + 2\pi) = \cos x$ — to rewrite $Q_3$ as

$Q_3 = \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{0} \frac{du}{\cos^2 u + 2 a \sin u \cos u + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 u}$ .

Changing the dummy variable from $u$ back to $x$ , we have

$Q_3 = \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{0} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$ .

Therefore, we can combined $Q_3 + Q_1$ into a single integral:

$Q_3 + Q_1 = \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{0} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

$+ \displaystyle \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

$Q_3 + Q_1 = \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

Next, we work on the middle integral $Q_2$ . We use the substitution $u = x - \pi$ , or $x = u + \pi$ , so that $du = dx$ . Then the interval of integration changes from $\pi/2 \le x \le 3\pi/2$ to $-\pi/2 \le u \le \pi/2$ , so that

$Q_2 = \displaystyle \int_{\pi/2}^{3\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

$= \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{du}{\cos^2 (u+\pi) + 2 a \sin (u+\pi) \cos (u+\pi) + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 (u+\pi)}$ .

Next, we use the trigonometric identities

$\sin(u + \pi) = \sin u \cos \pi + \cos u \sin \pi = \sin u \cdot (-1) + \cos u \cdot 0 = - \sin u$ ,

$\cos(u + \pi) = \cos u \cos \pi - \sin u \sin \pi = \cos u \cdot (-1) - \sin u \cdot 0 = - \cos u$ ,

so that the last integral becomes

$Q_2 = \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{(-\cos u)^2 + 2 a (-\sin u)(- \cos u) + (a^2 + b^2) (-\sin u)^2}$

$= \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{du}{\cos^2 u + 2 a \sin u \cos u + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 u}$

$= \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

On the line above, I again replaced the dummy variable of integration from $u$ to $x$ . We see that $Q_2 = Q_1 + Q_3$ , and so

$Q = Q_1 + Q_2 + Q_3$

$Q = 2 Q_2$

$Q = 2 \displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

I’ll continue with the evaluation of this integral in tomorrow’s post.

How I Impressed My Wife: Part 1

Some husbands try to impress their wives by lifting extremely heavy objects or other extraordinary feats of physical prowess.

That will never happen in the Quintanilla household in a million years.

But she was impressed that I broke an impasse in her research and resolved a discrepancy between Mathematica 4 and Mathematica 8 by finding the following integral by hand in less than an hour:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{dx}{\cos^2 x + 2 a \sin x \cos x + (a^2 + b^2) \sin^2 x}$

Yes, I married well indeed.

This integral serves as the theoretical underpinnings for finding vortices in the velocity fields of atomic wave functions and can be obtained from Equation (4) of a 2014 paper in Physical Review A that she co-authored. And I really like this integral because there are so many different ways of evaluating it, including various trigonometric identities, the magic substitution $u = \tan (x/2)$ , partial fractions, and even contour integration and residues.

In this series, I’ll explore different ways of evaluating this integral, starting tomorrow. Until then, I offer a thought bubble if you’d like to try to tackle this before I present the solution(s).

High School Teachers’ Problem Solving Activities to Review and Extend Their Mathematical and Didactical Knowledge

Every so often, I’ll publicize through this blog an interesting article that I’ve found in the mathematics or mathematics education literature that can be freely distributed to the general public. Today, I’d like to highlight Manuel Santos-Trigo & Fernando Barrera-Mora (2011) High School Teachers’ Problem Solving Activities to Review and Extend Their Mathematical and Didactical Knowledge, PRIMUS: Problems, Resources, and Issues in Mathematics Undergraduate Studies, 21:8, 699-718, DOI: 10.1080/10511971003600965

Here’s the abstract:

The study documents the extent to which high school teachers reflect on their need to revise and extend their mathematical and practicing knowledge. In this context, teachers worked on a set of tasks as a part of an inquiring community that promoted the use of different computational tools in problem solving approaches. Results indicated that the teachers recognized that the use of the Cabri-Geometry software to construct dynamic representations of the problems became useful, not only to make sense of the problems statement, but also to identify and explore a set of mathematical relations. In addition, the use of other tools like hand-held calculators and spreadsheets offered them the opportunity to examine, contrast, and extend visual and graphic results to algebraic approaches.

The full article can be found here: http://dx.doi.org/10.1080/10511971003600965

Proving theorems and special cases (Part 16): An old homework problem

In a recent class with my future secondary math teachers, we had a fascinating discussion concerning how a teacher should respond to the following question from a student:

Is it ever possible to prove a statement or theorem by proving a special case of the statement or theorem?

Usually, the answer is no. In this series of posts, we’ve seen that a conjecture could be true for the first 40 cases or even the first $10^{316}$ cases yet not always be true. We’ve also explored the computational evidence for various unsolved problems in mathematics, noting that even this very strong computational evidence, by itself, does not provide a proof for all possible cases.

However, there are plenty of examples in mathematics where it is possible to prove a theorem by first proving a special case of the theorem. For the remainder of this series, I’d like to list, in no particular order, some common theorems used in secondary mathematics which are typically proved by first proving a special case.

The following problem appeared on a homework assignment of mine about 30 years ago when I was taking Honors Calculus out of Apostol’s book. I still remember trying to prove this theorem (at the time, very unsuccessfully) like it was yesterday.

Theorem. If $f(x)$ is a continuous function so that $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$ , then $f(x) = cx$ for some constant $c$ .

Proof. The proof mirrors that of the uniqueness of the logarithm function, slowly proving special cases to eventually prove the theorem for all real numbers $x$ .

Case 1. $x = 0$ . If we set $x =0$ and $y = 0$ , then

$f(0+0) = f(0) + f(0)$

$f(0) = 2 f(0)$

$0 = f(0)$

Case 2. $x \in \mathbb{N}$ . If $x$ is a positive integer, then

$f(x) = f(1 + 1 + \dots + 1)$

$f(x) = f(1) + f(1) + \dots + f(1)$

$f(x) = xf(1)$ .

(Technically, this should be proven by induction, but I’ll skip that for brevity.) If we let $c = f(1)$ , then $f(x) = cx$ .

Case 3. $x \in \mathbb{Z}$ . If $x$ is a negative integer, let $x = -n$ , where $n$ is a positive integer. Then

$f(x + (-x)) = f(x) + f(-x)$

$f(0) = f(x) + f(n)$

$0 = f(x) + cn$

$-cn = f(x)$

$cx = f(x)$

Case 4. $x \in \mathbb{Q}$ . If $x$ is a rational number, then write $x = p/q$ , where $p$ and $q$ are integers and $q$ is a positive integer. We’ll use the fact that $p = xq = p/q \times q = p/q + p/q + \dots + p/q$ , where the sum is repeated $q$ times.

$f(p/q + p/q + \dots + p/q) = f(p)$

$f(p/q) + f(p/q) + \dots + f(p/q) = cp$

$q f(p/q) = cp$

$f(p/q) = cp/q$

$f(x) = cx$

Case 5. $x \in \mathbb{R}$ . If $x$ is a real number, then let $\{r_n\}$ be a sequence of rational numbers that converges to $x$ , so that

$\lim_{n \to \infty} r_n = x$

Then, since $f$ is continuous,

$f(x) = f \left( \displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} r_n \right)$

$f(x) =\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} f(r_n)$

$f(x) = \displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} c r_n$

$f(x) = cx$

QED

Random Thought #1: The continuity of the function $f$ was only used in Case 5 of the above proof. I’m nearly certain that there’s a pathological discontinuous function that satisfies $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$ which is not the function $f(x) = cx$ . However, I don’t know what that function might be.

Random Thought #2: For what it’s worth, this same idea can be used to solve the following problem that was posed during UNT’s Problem of the Month competition in January 2015. I won’t solve the problem here so that my readers can have the fun of trying to solve it for themselves.

Problem. Determine all nonnegative continuous functions that satisfy

$f(x+t) = f(x) + f(t) + 2 \sqrt{f(x)} \sqrt{f(t)}$ .

Proving theorems and special cases (Part 15): The Mean Value Theorem

In a recent class with my future secondary math teachers, we had a fascinating discussion concerning how a teacher should respond to the following question from a student:

Is it ever possible to prove a statement or theorem by proving a special case of the statement or theorem?

6. Theorem (Mean Value Theorem). If $f$ is a continuous function on the interval $[a,b]$ which is differentiable on the interior $(a,b)$ , then there is a point $c \in (a,b)$ so that

$f'(c) = \displaystyle \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$

In other words, there is a point $c$ in $(a,b)$ so that the slope of the tangent line at $c$ is the same as the slope of the line segment connecting the endpoints.

This is a consequence of the following lemma.

Lemma (Rolle’s Theorem). If $f$ is a continuous function on the interval $[a,b]$ which is differentiable on the interior $(a,b)$ so that $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 0$ , then there is a point $c \in (a,b)$ so that $f'(c) = 0$ .

Notice that Rolle’s Theorem is really a special case of the Mean Value Theorem: if $f(a) = 0$ and $f(b) = 0$ , then the right-hand side of the conclusion of the Mean Value Theorem becomes

$\displaystyle \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a} = \displaystyle \frac{0-0}{b-a} = 0$ ,

thus matching the conclusion of Rolle’s Theorem.

I won’t type out the proofs of Rolle’s Theorem and the Mean Value Theorem here, since Wikipedia has already done that very well. Suffice it to say that Rolle’s Theorem logically comes first, and then the Mean Value Theorem can be proven using Rolle’s Theorem. The main idea is to assume that the function $f$ satisfies the hypotheses of the Mean Value Theorem and then define

$g(x) = f(x) - f(a) - \displaystyle \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a} (x-a)$

It’s straightforward to show that $g$ satisfies the hypotheses of Rolle’s Theorem and conclude that there must be a point so that $g'(c) = 0$ , from which we obtain the conclusion of the Mean Value Theorem.

Proving theorems and special cases (Part 14): The Power Law of differentiation

In a recent class with my future secondary math teachers, we had a fascinating discussion concerning how a teacher should respond to the following question from a student:

Is it ever possible to prove a statement or theorem by proving a special case of the statement or theorem?

5. Theorem. For any rational number $r$ , we have $\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} x^r = r x^{r-1}$ .

This theorem is typically proven using the Chain Rule (in the guise of implicit differentiation) and the following lemma:

Lemma. For any integer $n$ , we have $\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} x^n = n x^{n-1}$ .

Clearly, the lemma is a special case of the main theorem. However, the lemma can be proven without using the main theorem:

Proof of Lemma (Case 1). If $n$ is a positive integer, then

$\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} x^n = \displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{(x+h)^n - x^n}{h}$

$= \displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{x^n + n x^{n-1} h + \frac{1}{2} n(n-1) x^{n-2} + \dots + h^n - x^n}{h}$

$= \displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0} \left[ n x^{n-1} + \frac{1}{2} n(n-1) x^{n-2} h + \dots + h^{n-1} \right]$

$= n x^{n-1} + 0 + \dots + 0$

$= n x^{n-1}$

Case 1 can also be proven using the Product Rule and mathematical induction.

Proof of Lemma (Case 2). If $n = 0$ , then the theorem is trivially true since $x^0 = 1$ , and the derivative of a constant is zero.

Proof of Lemma (Case 3). If $n$ is a negative integer, then write $n = -m$ , where $m$ is a positive integer. Then, using the Quotient Rule,

$\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} x^n = \displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} \left( x^{-m} \right)$

$= \displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} \left( \frac{1}{x^m} \right)$

$= \displaystyle \frac{0 \cdot x^m - 1 \cdot m x^{m-1}}{x^{2m}}$

$= -m x^{-m - 1}$

$= n x^{n-1}$

QED

Now that the lemma has been proven, the main theorem can be proven using the lemma.

Proof of Theorem. Suppose that $r = p/q$ , where $p$ and $q$ are integers. Suppose that $y = x^r = x^{p/q}$ . Then:

$y = x^{p/q}$

$y^q = \displaystyle \left[ x^{p/q} \right]^q$

$y^q = x^p$

Let’s now differentiate with respect to $x$ :

$q y^{q-1} \displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = p x^{p-1}$

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \displaystyle \frac{p x^{p-1}}{q y^{q-1}}$

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \displaystyle \frac{p}{q} \frac{x^{p-1}}{[x^{p/q}]^{q-1}}$

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \displaystyle \frac{p}{q} \frac{x^{p-1}}{x^{p - p/q}}$

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \displaystyle \frac{p}{q} x^{p-1 - (p-p/q)}$

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \displaystyle \frac{p}{q} x^{p - 1 - p + p/q}$

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = \displaystyle \frac{p}{q} x^{p/q - 1}$

$\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = r x^{r-1}$

QED

Proving theorems and special cases (Part 13): Uniqueness of logarithms

In a recent class with my future secondary math teachers, we had a fascinating discussion concerning how a teacher should respond to the following question from a student: