Different definitions of logarithm (Part 2)

There are two apparently different definitions of a logarithm that appear in the secondary mathematics curriculum:

From Algebra II and Precalculus: If $b > 0$ and $b \ne 1$ , then $f(x) = \log_b x$ is the inverse function of $g(x) = b^x$ .
From Calculus: for $x > 0$ , we define $\ln x = \displaystyle \int_1^x \frac{1}{t} dt$ .

In this series of posts, we examine the interrelationship between these two different approaches to logarithms. This is a standard topic in my class for future teachers of secondary mathematics as a way of deepening their understanding of a topic that they think they know quite well.

The connection between these two apparently different ideas begins with the following theorem.

Theorem. Let $a \in \mathbb{R}^+ \setminus \{1\}$ . Suppose that $f: \mathbb{R}^+ \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ has the following four properties:

$f(1) = 0$

$f(a) = 1$

$f(xy) = f(x) + f(y)$ for all $x, y \in \mathbb{R}^+$

$f$ is continuous

Then $f(x) = \underline{\hspace{1in}}$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}^+$ .

When writing this on the board, I purposefully leave an underline for my students to fill in, because I want them to think. What familiar function has these four properties? I’ll usually invoke the old chidren’s joke: “If it looks like an elephant, smells like an elephant, feels like an elephant, and sounds like an elephant, then it must be an elephant.” After a moment of thought, someone will usually volunteer $f(x) = \log x$ . That’s almost correct, and so I’ll ask if Property 2 is satisfied by this function. After a couple more moments of thought, someone will volunteer the correct answer, $f(x) = \log_a x$ .

To prove this theorem, I will show that

$f(a^x) = x$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ .

I’ll make the observation that the case of $latex x=0$ is Property 1, while the case of $x = 1$ is Property 2.

Then I’ll ask the class: “If I’m able to prove that $f(a^x) = x$ for all real $x$ , why does this mean that $f(x) = \log_a x$ ?” Perhaps unsurprisingly, this usually draws blank stares for a few seconds until someone realizes that this means that $f: \mathbb{R}^+ \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and $g: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^+$ defined by $g(x) = a^x$ are inverse functions. So (by definition) $f(x)$ must be equal to $\log_a x$ .